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Part 2 Study Guide. Airborne Operations
36. What are the responsibilities of the DACO?
a. 1 coordinates parachute issue and ground transport, 2 establishes a marshaling area, 3 confirms the marshaling area, 4 ensures radio / telephone communications, 5 briefs the JM on changes and restrictions, 6 is present at the Joint Weather decision, 7 notifies the DZSO when the aircraft depart, 8 notifies high headquarters and isolated the aircraft in the event there is a casualty on board 9 takes charge of Army personnel and equipment left aboard after the jump
37. What are the responsibilities of the Drop Zone Safety Officer (DZSO)?
a. The DZSO is responsible for the safe operation of the drop zone
38. What are the qualifications of a DZSO?
a. Must be Jumpmaster qualified and normally an E-6 or above
39. When must a Drop Zone be ready for operation?
a. One hour prior to Drop time
40. What are the time and task requirements of the DZSO?
a. 1 hour prior to drop – contract Range Control
b. 10 minutes prior – check winds on the DZ
c. 5 minutes prior – make final check with Range Control
d. 1 minute prior – final wind check, Go/No Go decision
e. After Jump – close the rage with Range Control
41. What are the jump restrictions for wind velocity?
a. 1 On the ground Winds not over 13 knots, 2 at jump altitude winds not over 30 knots
42. What are the specific considerations for the Drop Zone?
a. Night – 5 minutes prior to drop time, all lights on or near the drop zone must be extinguished, 2 Water within 1000 meters of the Drop Zone there must be a man in a recovery boat, 3 Power lines within 1000 meters of the DZ, power must be turned off
43. What is a Combat Control Team?
a. An Air Force element that sets up drop zones for conventional units.
They have direct radio communication with the aircraft.
44. What are the four types of Special Forces drop zones?
a. 1 Primary, 2 Alternate, 3 Unmarked, and 4 Area
45. What are the criteria for Primary and Alternate drop zones?
a. 1 reasonably secure, 2 accessible, 3 safe, 4 can be identified by the aircrew, 5 free of hostile installations that can interdict, Alternate DZ’s should be located close to the aircraft track to the Primary DZ
46. What is an unmarked drop zone?
a. Exactly as the name implies, it is a DZ that is not marked. It is normally limited by visibility to specific astronomical conditions, it is usually odd shaped and sized. Isolated or remote from enemy threat. Should be close to the evacuation route.
47. What is the purpose of unmarked drop zones?
a. Receipt of emergency supplies
48. What is an Area Drop Zone?
a. A series of potential drop zones on the same track. Individual drop zones will not be more than ½ nautical mile off track and there will be not more than 28 km (15nm) between DZs. There will not be any elevation changes over 90 meters. Each drop zone will be identified by individual coordinates.
49. What are the selection criteria for drop zones?
a. 1 Safety, 2 weather, astronomical conditions, 3 SECURITY, 4 shape, 5, size, 6 ground surface, 7 terrain
50. What is the minimum size of a personnel drop zone?
a. A radius of 305 meters
51. What are the five elements of the reception committee?
a. 1 Command, 2 Security, 3 Marking, 4 Recovery, 5 Transportation
52. What type of security is required at drop zones?
a. Inner and outer security
53. What is the minimum manning of the Recovery element?
a. 2 men per bundle or person
54. What is the standard DZ marking?
a. The NATO “L”
55. What are the three factors necessary to determine the Ground Release Point?
a. Dispersion, Wind Drift, and Forward Throw
56. What is Dispersion?
a. The distance between the first and last landing on the ground
57. What is Wind Drift?
a. The amount of lateral dispersion caused by blowing wind
58. What is forward throw?
a. The distance a jumper or bundle will continue to travel forward along the aircraft track before inertia is used up and gravity and wind drift take over
59. What is the formula for dispersion?
a. D=RT
b. Dispersion = .51 x speed of the aircraft x exit time
60. What is the Dispersion Factor for a C-130?
a. C-130 125 kn (63.75)
61. What is the Dispersion factor for a C-141?
a. C-141 130 kn (66.300)
62. How is the exit time determined?
a. Total number of jumpers and bundles divided by number of doors subtract 1 (for the door jumper)
63. What is the formula for Wind Drift?
a. D=KAV
b. Drift = parachute constant x aircraft AGL (in 100’s od feet) x wind velocity (in knots)
64. What are the parachute constants?
a. Cargo = 2.6 and Personnel = 4.1
65. When conducting a mixed (personnel and cargo) drop what constant should be used?
a. Always use the constant for personnel 4.1
66. What is the factor for Forward Throw?
a. Always the constant 220 meters
67. What is the Drop Zone Safety Factor?
a. Add 100 meters at each end of the dispersion. Add a total of 200 meters to the calculation
68. What is the personnel load of a C-130?
a. Normal -- 64 pax, Emergency – 130 pax
69. What is the personnel load of a C-141?
a. Normal -- 152 pax, Emergency – 180 pax
70. When putting out DZ markers what is the line of sight ratio?
a. 1:15
71. How do you determine Line of sight?
a. Multiply the height of the nearest obstacle by 15
72. What is the distance between panels in a NATO “L”
a. 46 meters between the line of flight panels (A – apex -- and B)
b. 46 meters between the first perpendicular panels (A – apex -- and )
c. 46 meters between the outer perpendicular panels (C and D)
73. What track will the aircraft fly relative to the panels?
a. The aircraft will fly parallel to the A and B panels, offset to the right by 91 meters
74. What is the procedure for laying out a drop zone?
a. 1 determine where you want people to land, 2 determine dispersion, 3 add the safety zone, 4 figure how long the drop zone is in seconds. 5 Determine where you want the first person or bundle to land. 6 determine wind drift and pace off walking into the wind. 7 Determine forward throw (220 m) pace that off walking parallel to the aircraft track. This is the RELEASE POINT, 8 offset 91 meters (100 yards) to the left. This is where the A panel goes.
75. If smoke is used on the drop zone, how should it be placed?
a. So that it does not obscure the panels
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