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Old 05-23-2013, 21:25   #27
Geenie
Guerrilla
 
Join Date: Dec 2006
Location: New York
Posts: 158
I don't see it that clearly...

Quote:
Originally Posted by Streck-Fu View Post
Having armed citizens means the two perpetrators would have shot the soldier....?

That's not how it actually works...



This has proven to be false largely due to the way they report crime. It keeps the numbers artificially low.

No, I'm saying if weapons are freely available to the citizenry, that means "bad guys" can just as well obtain one. To me, that is common sense, and nothing else.

With regard to the statistics, I am aware that they are a highly questionable means of addressing the question of gun control. I will be grateful for any credible sources you can provide that "prove" that Britain has been artificially keeping it's violent crime rate low. In any case, I cannot possibly imagine that, proportionally, the murder rate involving firearms is even remotely comparable to that of the US.

I am completely open to being shown otherwise.
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