QP Pete--
Sorry about that.
The answer to your questions are "I don't know." I have failed thus far to find a transcript of the speech.
My question is did Clinton use any tense of the verb "to dominate" to indicate that Christians have undue influence in America because of their faith, i.e., a theocracy (in the corrupted meaning of that word that is in vogue these days)?
To me, such a statement would be hostile regardless of Clinton's definition of Christians. IMHO, "influence", "shape", "inform", are more appropriate terms to use when discussing the role religious groups may play in contemporary America politics.
I've looked at about five versions of the story and the whole concept religious domination seems to have been missed by other outlets.